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GRADE 12

REVIEW FOR THE 2ND SEMESTER
-----    -----

TEST 1

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS
   Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by pocking long sticks and
other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (2)…………average
female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more
than two years earlier than the males.
   The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at
the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male and female are near a
mound, 'she's really focusing on termite fishing and he's spinning himself round (4)………..circles'. Dr Landsdorf and
colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially created termite mound, filled with mustard  (5)
…….than termites.
Question 1: A. relative   

 B. similar    

Question 2: A. at    

 

  C. close        

    B. by    

Question 3: A. typical       

 

C. on        

  B. regular   

Question 4: A. in     

     B. with   

Question 5: A. other    

      B. else  

  D. connected
  D. for

 C. ordinary       
 
 

C. to      

D. frequent
    D. through

 C. instead      

  D. rather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 6 to 12.
   Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of
desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man's inexorable necessity is
to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert
pass their entire lives without a single drop
   Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand
its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants
of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift –
footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with
reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as
healthy as animals anywhere in the world.
   The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs
and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the
burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the
sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?
   A. Life underground  
   C. Desert plants  

   
   

   
   

    B. Animal life in a desert environment
   

 D. Man's life in the desert

Question 7: The word “desiccating” means____.
   A. humidifying  
   C. drying  

   
   

   
   

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  B. killing
    D. life threatening

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Question 8: The phrase “those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT
   A. water – loving animals  
   C. many large animals  

   

   

   

 B. moist – skinned animals

   

   D. the bobcat

Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they ____.
   A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places
   C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees  

   

   B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
       D. live in an accommodating environment

Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
   A. All living things adjust to their environments.  
   C. Water is the basis of life.  

   

   

   

   

 B. Healthy animals live longer lives.
D. Desert life is colorful.

Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to____.
   A. large animals  

  B. the forest animals  

  C. water – loving  

  D. the desert population.

Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT
   A. they dig home underground  

   

   C. they are ready to hunt after sunset  

   
   

    B. they are noisy and aggressive
   

 D. they sleep during the day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 13 to 20.
   Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and
town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in
their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers' version of the game: a diamond
shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you're – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per
inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings,
baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At
its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would
appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday
afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening's entertainments for the winners.
   During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission),
under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a
club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and their” muffins“ (the gently  duffers who once
ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati's Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 18701890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of
Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by
business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball's “Golden
Age”. Profits soared, player's salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical
“The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard
refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?
    A. the origin of baseball.  

   

   

   

B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
    C. the commercialization of baseball.  

   

   

D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

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Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
   A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalize.
  B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that
develop in baseball.
   C. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not
want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.
   D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.
Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.
   A. requirements  

   B. rules  

   C. insistence  

   D. beginning

Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?
   A. they didn't play on weekend
   B. the president would choose teams from among the members
   C. a team might consist of 40 members
   D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn't make the first nine.
Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.
   A. commercialism became more prosperous  
   C. outstanding players got extra income  

   
   

    B. the clubs are smaller
 

 D. people gambled on the outcome of game

Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
   A. profits soared
   B. a weekly periodical news
   C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
   D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.
Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.
   A. the Western League  

 B. growing cities  

 C. the Midwest  

 D. the American League

Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
   A. very generous  

    B. prolonged  

    C. Grand  

    D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. requests   
Question 22: A. civic     

     B. calculates  
   B. service  

  C. questions     
C. fertile    

D. attacks
  D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. contribute   
Question 24: A. habitat   

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   B. dynamics 
     B. expansion   

C. imagine        
C. endanger     

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  D. devastate
D. agreement

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 25: Tom said that he was trying (A) to carry out some (B) campaigns (C) to protect environment and will
encourage others (D) to do so.
Question 26: My elder (A) sisters, both of them (B) were doctors, said they were too busy (C) to pick (D) me up.
Question 27: Tropical (A) rain forests are founded (B) in a (C) belt around the Equator of (D) the Earth.
Question 28: It is very (A) difficult for (B) her to prevent (C) him for smoking (D) in her house.
Question 29: If we cannot save (A) the forests in their original (B) state, we must save enough (C) to preserve them
as living burgeon ecosystem (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 30: The students in class were made _____ very hard
   A. learning               B. learn  

  C. to learn                D. having learnt

Question 31: ____ umbrella should not be used during ______ thunderstorm.
   A. a/a                 B. the/a  

  C. an/a                D. no article/ a

Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep _____ going to the dentist.
   A. put on                  B. taking off  

  C. take on                D. putting off

Question 33: She hasn't had a _____ week. She seems to have done nothing at all.
   A. productive                B. enthusiastic  

  C. economic                  D. extensive

Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under ____
   A. provision  

   B. investigation  

 C. explanation  

  D. division

Question 35: Fewer than 4000 mountain gorillas remain in the wild and now conservationist warn that the animals are
on__________of extinction.
A. the verge

B. a risk

C. a verge

D. stake

Question 36: The university ____ by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.
   A. supports

 B. is supported

 C. is supporting

 D. has supported

Question 37: She always complained ___ her parents ___ how small her room was or how few clothes she had.
   A. with/ for

B. with/about

C. to/ about

D. to/ for

Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will __ to learn than a native speaker of Chinese
    A. find Portuguese much easier
B. find that Portuguese is much easy
    C. find Portuguese much easy

 

D. find Portuguese is much easier

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Question 39: I couldn't help ____ when I saw your face after making up.
   A. to laugh.

B. for laughing

  C. laughing

   D. laughed

Question 40: When she _____ at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much it
   A. have looked/cost

B. had looked/cost

 C. has been looking/costed

  D. looked/costs

TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. needed         B. decided

C. invented   

Question 2: A. bomb         B. tomb

C. combat     

   D. caused
D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. university        B. sociology

C. examination     

D. geographical

Question 4: A. nature   

C. forget      

D. begin

   B. agricultural

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Paris is much (A) more exciting (B) as (C) I expected (D).
Question 6: English (A) is speaking (B) in many countries (C) in the world (D).
Question 7: Chemical engineering is based in (A) the principles (B) of physics, chemistry (C), and mathematics (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: Lan likes music, _________?
   A. doesn't she           B. does she

C. is she           D. isn't she

Question 9: If I ___ you, I would apply for that English course.
   A. am                  B. were

C. had been               D. is

Question 10: I decided _________ the dictionary you told me about.
   A. bought           B. buy

C. buying         

  D. to buy

Question 11: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time_________the Internet.
   A. to surfing           B. surfed

C. surfing             D. to surf

Question 12: It was not until he failed the final examination _____ he realized how important the revision was.
   A. that           B. who

C. what           D. and

Question 13: We will go out _________ the rain stops.
   A. until          B. during

C. while           D. when

Question 14: He would not have been late for school if he _________ up early.
   A. has got           B. got

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C. had got           D. gets

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Question 15: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of
his carelessness .
   A. Japanese beautiful new blue

 B. new beautiful blue Japanese

   C. beautiful Japanese blue new

  D. beautiful new blue Japanese

Question 16: _________you pass a chemist's, will you get me some aspirins?.
   A. Did                 B. Should

C. Would           D. Had

Question 17: Did you arrive at the station on time? – No, I missed 5 o'clock train; _________ the was an other one after
5 minutes.
   A. Thus               B. Also

C. However            D. Besides

Question 18: Hardly _________ when the argument begins.
   A. when he arrived

B. he had arrived

C. than he arrived

D. had he arrived

Question 19: The film was really boring. It was _________ I've seen.
   A. the most boring film

B. most boring film   C. the more boring film

 D. the film more boring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Would you like something to eat?” - “ ______ . I am not hungry now.”
   A. No, thanks

B. Good idea, thanks

C. Thanks, I will

D. Yes, I would

Question 21: Mary (on the phone) : “Could I speak to Susan?” - Susan : “ _________!”
   A. Talking

 B. Calling

 C. Answering

 D. Speaking

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The cultural and historical sites in Kyoto have been given appropriate care and maintenance.
   A. preservation

B. revival

C. recovery

D. recognition

Question 23: Our parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.
   A. make decisions

B. put together

C. take each other's hands

D. work together

Question 24: Schooling is compulsory for all English children from age 5 to 16.
   A. free

B. optional

C. constructive

D. beneficial

Question 25: The original World Cup trophy was given permanently to Brazil to honor that country's record third
World Cup title in 1970.
   A. for good

B. lastingly

C. for age

D. temporarily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26: “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said.
   A. Mai promised to help me with the housework.

B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework.

   C. Mai begged to help me with the housework.

 D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework.

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Question 27: They couldn't go swimming because of the cold weather.
   A. The cold weather made it impossible to go swimming.
   B. The cold weather prevented them from going swimming
   C. Their going swimming was unable due to the cold weather.
   D. The cold weather made it not capable of going swimming.
Question 28: I can't help feeling worried about David.
   A. I find it impossible not to worry about David.

 B. I don't worry about David.

   C. I can do nothing to help David.

  D. I cannot help David stop worrying.

Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
   A. A waitress, who served us, was very impolite and impatient.
   B. A waitress, which served us, was very impolite and impatient.
   C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
   D. A waitress whom served us, was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: He was successful because he was determined to purse personal goals. He was not talented.
   A. It was his determination to purse personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
   B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursing his goals.
   C. His success lay in his natural ability, not his determination to purse personal goals.
   D. His determination to purse personal goals made him successful and talented.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
   Always arrive early. If you do not know (31) _____ the organization is located, call for exact directions (32) ___
advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away
and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your
resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone
you encounter with respect. Be (33) _____ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business
suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (34) ____ are extremely important in the interview process. Women
should (35) _____ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It
is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you
think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a
tailored suit.
Question 31: A. when              B. why
Question 32: A. with        

  B. in

C. where                     D. that
     C. on                    

  D. for

Question 33: A. happy             B. pleasant

C. disappointed     

D. excited

Question 34: A. attendances      B. attentions

C. impressions    

  D. pressures

Question 35: A. avoid                B. suggest

C. enjoy                     D. mind

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
   Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of
international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many
elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the
most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the
globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of
English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English
gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.
   Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two thirds of the
world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international
airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of
these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world..
Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?
   A. The number of non-native users of English.
   B. The French influence on the English Language.
   C. The expansion of English as an international language.
   D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to____.
   A. appeared

B. disappeared

C. frequented

D. engaged

Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to____.
   A. declaration

B. features

C. curiosities

D. customs

Question 39: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
   A. In 1066

B. around 1350

C. before 1600

D. after 1600

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
_________
   A. the slave trade

B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries

D. colonization

TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. muddy             B. punctual

C. studious                D. culture

Question 2: A. land                B. sandy

C. many                    D. candy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. adventure      B. attendance

C. opponent  

Question 4: A. represent      B. permanent

C. continent    

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      D. penalty
  D. sentiment

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: When the protester entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was dumbfounded.
   A. speechless

B. excited

C. content

D. applauding

Question 6: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.
   A. opinion

B. viewing

C. look

D. regard

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted.
   A. conscientious

 B. inadvertent

 C. inevitable

 D. justified

Question 8: On November 25 1972, something dreadful happened on board of the brigantine Mary Celeste, causing all
crew members to hastily abandon the ship.
   A. hold on

 B. stay on

C. take care of

D. save for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 9: Humans (A) have done (B) great advances (C) in technology at the expense (D) of the environment.
Question 10: Hardly did he enter (A) the room when (B) all the lights (C) went (D) out.
Question 11: Publishing in the UK (A), the book has won (B) a number of awards in (C) recent regional book fairs (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 12: Labor unions and the company______ in a confrontation over plans to curb benefits.
   A. carried away

B. faced off

C. caught up

D. showed up

Question 13: What university will you take an_________ examination into?
   A. entrance

B. entry

C. admission

D. attendance

Question 14: At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon _______ novelty.
   A. died out

 B. wore off

 C. went off

D. died out

Question 15: Although he claimed to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually__________ for misconduct.
   A. released

B. dismissed

C. resigned

D. dispelled

Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the night planets that make up our solar system.
   A. The Earth is

B. The Earth being

C. That the Earth

D. Being the Earth

Question 17: ________ but he also proves himself a good athlete.
   A. Not only did he show himself a good student
   C. He did not show himself only a good student

B. Not only he showed himself a good student
  D. A good student not only showed himself

Question 18: It is recommended that he__________ this course.
   A. took

 B. take

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C. takes

D. taking

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Question 19: Our boss would rather_________ during the working hours.
   A. us not chat

B. we didn't chat

C. we don't chat

D. us not chatting

Question 20: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, _________.
   A. so

 B. yet

 C. however

D. even though

Question 21: Do you think doing the household chores is the__________of the women only?
   A. responsibly

B. responsible

C. responsibility

D. responsive

Question 22: He did some odd jobs at home__________.
   A. disappointment

B. disappointedly

C. disappointed

D. disappoint

Question 23: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________”
   A. What a lovely toy! Thanks.

B. Have a nice day!

C. The same to you!

D. What a pity!

Question 24: My sister is often sick because she doesn't do physical exercise.
   A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won't often be sick.
   B. If my sister isn't physical exercise, she does sick.
   C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn't often be sick.
   D. If my sister wasn't physical exercise, she would do sick.
Question 25: He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel__________by Ernest Hemingway.
   A. written

B. writing

C. which written

D. that wrote

Question 26: If you don't work much harder, you won't pass the exam.
   Unless you__________much harder, you__________the exam.
   A. work / will pass

B. don't work / will pass

   C. don't work / won't pass

D. work / won't pass

Question 27: It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary. Ben thanked Mary____the
present.
   A. of giving him
C. for giving him

B. it had been nice of her to give him
D. that she had been nice to give him

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 28: “You shouldn't have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
   A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
   B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
   C. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
   D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.

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Question 29: “Don't forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.
   A. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
   B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
   C. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
   D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
Question 30: “If you don't pay the ransom, we'll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
   A. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
   B. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
   C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
   D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer ...