SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
KIÊN GIANG
------------ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG TỈNH THCS
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
-----------------------------Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 23/3/2023
Chú ý: - Đề thi này gồm 14 trang
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bản đề thi này.

ĐIỂM CỦA TOÀN BÀI THI
Bằng số

Bằng chữ

CÁC GIÁM KHẢO

SỐ PHÁCH

(Họ, tên và chữ ký)

(Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi)

1.
2.



----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PHÁCH ĐÍNH KÈM ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Số báo danh: …………… Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………. Nam/nữ: ………..
Ngày sinh: ……………… Đơn vị: ………………………………………………………………………...
CÁC GIÁM THỊ

SỐ PHÁCH

(Họ, tên và chữ ký)

(Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi)

1.
2.
Chú ý: - Thí sinh phải ghi đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị;
- Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào bản đề thi có phách đính kèm này;
- Bài thi phải được viết bằng một loại bút, một thứ mực; không viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì; không
được đánh dấu hay làm ký hiệu riêng; phần viết hỏng phải dùng thước gạch chéo; không được tẩy, xóa
bằng bất kỳ cách gì (kể cả bút xóa).

Trang 1

I. LISTENING (40 marks)
Part 1: Questions 1 – 5, 10 marks
There are five questions. For each question there are three pictures and a short
recording. Choose the correct picture. You will hear each conversation TWICE. (10 marks)

Trang 2

Your answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part 2: Questions 6 – 10, 10 marks
You will hear an announcement about what's on television tomorrow. For each question put a
tick (✓) in the correct box. You will hear the recording TWICE. (10 marks)
6. The Railway Princess is on television from ………. .
A.  9.00 to 10.00

B.  9.00 to 10.30

C.  9.30 to 11.00

7. There is a music programme for teenagers ………. .
A.  early in the morning

B.  before lunch

C.  at lunch time

8. You can see a football match between ………. .
A.  Ireland and Spain

B.  Brazil and Ireland

C.  Spain and Italy

9. In the quiz programme, teams have to guess ………. .
A.  the year

B.  the person

C.  the place

10. What kind of film is I Could Live Forever?
A.  a comedy
Your answer:
6.

B.  a musical
7.

8.

C.  a thriller
9.

10.

Part 3: Questions 11 – 15, 10 marks
Listen to a talk about a scholarship for Spanish learners and complete the note. Write NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each blank. You will listen TWICE. (10 marks)
Scholarship for learners of Spanish
Sponsored by the (11) ___________
Up to 75% of tuition fee is free; the rest will be paid (12) ___________
Courses are 100% (13) ___________ with plenty of learning materials
Two hours with Spanish teachers on Mondays and (14) ___________
Get to know about Spanish (15) ___________ and culture directly
Your answer:
11.

12.

13.

14.

15.
Trang 3

Part 4: Questions 16 – 25, 10 marks
Listen and fill each of the gaps with ONE word you hear (10 marks)
I want to talk about beating stress today. You know life here in Hong Kong is very (16)
___________ so I think today's topic is very useful for everyone because we can do something
about it, just to (17) ___________ with the stress. So maybe you make some changes in your life,
maybe big changes or small changes, but instead of being (18) ___________, I think you should
have a (19) ___________ attitude and think of change as a normal part of life.
And here in Hong Kong, the families are crowded into a very small (20) ___________space,
so maybe you would sometimes (21) ___________ with your family and try to resolve the (22)
___________with people. This is very important because then you can build strong relationships
and keep the commitments you have made. For example, sometimes maybe you are feeling (23)
___________ and you want to feel some comfort and I think it's important to be able to if you
can ask the people you (24) ___________ for help because if you have a bunch of friends, they
can listen to you then you can release some stress (25) ___________talking to them.
Your answer:
16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (60 marks)
Part 1: Question 26 - 30, 5 marks.

Choose the words whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in
each group
26. A. drumhead
B. illustration
C. earplug
D. drugstore
27. A. treasure
28. A. ploughed

B. pleasure
B. laughed

C. ensure C.

D. measure

coughed C.

D. locked D.

29. A. describe

B. celebrate

plumber C.

abrupt D.

30. A. bushes

B. wishes

researches

headaches

Your answers:
26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Part 2: Question 31 - 35, 5 marks.
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is placed differently from that of the other in
each group.
31. A. tomato

B. nutritious

C. ingredient

D. tablespoon

32. A. difficult

B. relevant

C. volunteer

D. interesting

33. A. beautiful

B. terrific

C. wonderful

D. marvelous

34. A. individual

B. supermarket

C. avocado

D. information

35. A. artisan

B. citadel

C. paradise

D. handicraft

Your answers:
31.

32.

33.

34.

35.
Trang 4

Part 3: Question 36 - 45, 10 marks.
Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences. Write your
answers (A, B, C, or D) in the box.
36. Nowadays, Tan Chau artisans can produce silk of multiple colors
customers' demands.
A. but

B. in order

C. so

37. Tom wakes his parents up
A. because
38.

D. so that

playing the guitar very softly.

B. in spite of

C. because of

D. although

she was very hard working; she hardly earned enough to feed her family.

A. In spite of

B. Because

39. The boy can't reach the shelf
A. because
40.

they can meet

C. Because of
he's not tall enough.

B. although

She asked me

D. Although

C. even though

the seat

or not.

A. if – had occupied

B. whether – was occupied

C. if– has been occupied

D. whether – occupied

41. Nam told us that sometimes he had difficulty
A. expressing

his feelings.

B. communicating C. sending

D. talking

42. Mi asked what information she

that assignment.

A. needs to be done

B. needed doing

C. needed to do

D. need to do

43. She said to me that she
A. wrote

D. and

to me the Sunday before.
B. has written

44. Last night I came home, cooked dinner, and

C. was writing

D. had written

TV.

A. watch

B. watched

C. was watching

45. Tomatoes

before they are completely ripe.

A. can be picked

B. can pick

C. needn't pick

D. would watch
D. should be picking

Your answers:
36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

Part 4: Question 46 - 55, 20 marks.
Supply the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answers
in the box.

Trang 5

CHARLIE CHAPLIN
During the First World War, at a time when there was lots of (46)
in
the world, one man did more than anyone else to spread (47)
.That
man was the (48)
, Charlie Chaplin. Audiences around the world
watched his films and each new one caused a lot of (49)
.
Chaplin created the character of the little tramp and people (50)
with this poor man. Up until then, film comedies had been (51)
and very fast. Although they were fun and (52)
the
audiences
,
became (53)
with seeing the same situations. Chaplin produced a
different kind of comedy. It was slower and more (54)
. His films both
made people laugh and touched their (55)
. Even today, his films
are enjoyed by many people of all ages.

(HATE)
(HAPPY)
(COMEDY)
(EXCITED)
(SYMPATHY)
(NOISE)
(ENERGY)
(BORE)
(EMOTION)
(FEEL)

Your answers:
46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

Part 5: Question 56 - 65, 10 marks.
There are ten mistakes in this letter. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Dear Mira,
It's great knowing that you're coming to Viet Nam. What a pity you can only spent one day in Ha
Noi.
There are so many interesting places in the city, but I think within one day you should be able
visit three places. The first I suggest is Viet Nam National Museum of History. You like history
so it's a must-see place. There's a extensive collection of artifacts tracing Vietnam's history. They
are arrange chronologically from primitive life to modern times. The second place is Hoan Kiem
Lake. It's one of the symbol of Ha Noi. There you can enjoy the beautiful scenery and visit Ngoc
Son Temple. You can also have look at the Old Quarter. Wander around the old streets and some
ancient houses explore Vietnamese culture.
Conveniently, these places are closed to one another, so we can walk around easily.
Tell me when you're come so I can show you around these places.
Look forward to seeing you soon.
Lan Anh
Your answers:
Line

Mistake

Correction

Line

56

61

57

62

58

63

59

64

60

65

Mistake

Correction

Trang 6

Part 6: Questions 66 - 75, 10 marks
Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following conversations. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the box.
66: Salesgirl is talking to her customer at the shop.
- Salesgirl: Which dress do you like best?

- Customer: “________”

A. Yes, I like best.

B. Which one do you like?

C. The one I tried on first.

D. No, I haven't tried any.

67: Peter and Mary are talking about their curriculum. Peter: “I think Art should be a compulsory subject.” Mary: “_______. Art helps develop creativity.”

A. I quite agree with you

B. You must be kidding

C. I'm of the opposite to opinion

D. I don't think that's a good idea

68: Ann is wearing a new dress. Mai gives her a compliment.
- Mai: “You look great in this new dress, Ann!”

- Ann: “_______.”

A. With pleasure.

C. I am glad you like it.

B. Not at all.

D. Do not say anything about it.

69: Ken and Tom are high – school students. They are discussing where their study group will
meet.

- Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
- Tom: “_________”.
A. Studying in a group is great fun.

C. We are too busy on weekdays.

B. Why don't you look at the atlas?

D. The library would be best.

70. Peter is talking to the receptionist on the phone.

- Peter: Hello, I'd like to speak to Mr. Tam, please.
- Receptionist: "______________"
A. Sorry, can you say that again?

B. I'm afraid. I don't know.

C. Thank you. See you.

D. I'm sorry. I'll call again later.

71. Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: "We should limit the use of plastic bags."
- Dane: "_______. We can use paper bags instead."
A. You're wrong

B. It's not true

C. I don't quite agree

D. I completely agree

72. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams. Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”

- Anne: “_______”.
A. I'm half ready.

B. God save you.

C. Thank you so much

D. Don't mention it!
Trang 7

73. Two neighbors are talking to each other about their work.

- Sani: "I'm taking a break from my gardening. There seems to be no end to the amount of work
I have to do."
- Nico: “_______”
A. I do, too.

B. Not at all

C. I'm glad I'm not in your shoes.

D. There's no doubt about that.

74: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.

- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "………We had sweet memories together then."
A. Absolutely

B. I doubt it

C. I'm afraid so

D. That's nonsense

75: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"

- "______"

A. Yes, of course. It's expensive.

B. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.

C. I like you to say that.

D. Certainly. Do you like it, too?

Your answers:
66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

III. READING (50 marks)
Part 1: Questions 76 - 85, 10 marks.
Choose the best option to fill the gap in the passage. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the
box.
Worst effects of fast food
Fast food can be defined as any food that contributes little or no nutrient value to the diet, but
instead provides excess calories and fat. Fast food can a good way to save time, but it is not the
(76)________ way for nutrition because it can have negative effects (77) _________ our health.
Obesity
Obesity means having too much body fat. Fast food is high (78) _________calories and sugar
that contribute to increased-weight gain. Even small amount of fast food can (79) _________your
calorie intake considerably. Fast foods are less (80) _________ to eat fruits, vegetables, milk etc.
This change in eating habits can easily lead to obesity.
Heart disease
Eating fast food four (81) _________ more times a week can increase the risk of dying from heart
disease because of the high (82) _________of saturated or trans fats found in much of the food.
Those fats can clog the arteries and, over time, (83) _________ to high cholesterol levels.
Type 2 diabetes
This type of diabetes is often caused by (84) _________ lifestyle choices, such as being
overweight and not being physically active. There is a side effect to consuming frequent amounts
(85) _________ fast food 'obesity' which can lead to the development of diabetes.
76. A. similar

B. proper

C. typical

D. sticky
Trang 8

77. A. on

B. for

C. of

D. to

78. A. for

B. in

C. of

D. to

79. A. decrease

B. rise

C. increase

D. complete

80. A. able

B. likely

C. likable

D. possible

81. A. either

B. but

C. and

D. or

82. A. level

B. number

C. lots

D. portion

83. A. contribute

B. build

C. manage

D. result

84. A. healthy

B. good

C. poor

D. rich

85. A. to

B. of

C. for

D. on

Your answers:
76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

Part 2: Questions 86 - 95, 20 marks.
Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable word. Write
your answers in the box.
Being the first and also the oldest high school in Hue, originally Quoc Hoc (National High School)
was the school for children from royal and noble families. French colonialists opened this
school in 1896 to train those (86)
would serve the government. Therefore, at that time,
French was the main subject for students. Now it is (87)
Hue National High School
and is a high-profile school that all students must pass a competitive (88)
exam to get
the admission.

Established in 1896, after more than 100-year history, the school today is considered the largest
and also the most beautiful high school (89)
in Viet Nam. This surrounding makes a
great picture of red French designed buildings in Harmony with green (90)
of a large
shady trees and stone benches. (91)
in spring, when “Diep anh dao” (a kind of cherry
blossoms) is in bloom, the whole picture is filled with pinky dots above red thatched tile.
Students often call that (92)
of time “Pinky cloud season” and regard it as the most
special moments of a year. These are the reasons why Quoc Hoc is also (93)
“Pinky
school beside Perfume River Bank” in the song with the same name.
Moreover, several Vietnamese (94)
leaders have been learning
here, including:
Nguyen Tat Thanh (President Ho Chi Minh), General Vo Nguyen Giap, Prime Minister Pham
Van Dong, etc. In addition, the school is famed for its students who are well-known poets (Xuan
Dieu, Huy Can, To Huu, Luu Trong Le etc.), scientists (Ta Quang Buu, Ton That Tung, Dang
Van Ngu, etc.), musicians (Tran Hoan, Nguyen Van Thuong, etc.). The school also has students
getting high prizes in many international (95)
.
Your answers:
86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.
Trang 9

Part 3: Questions 96 - 105, 10 marks.
Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-G for each part (96 -100) of the article.
There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. For question 96 -100, decide if
the statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the box.
Headings
A. Cut down on salt
B. Avoid saturated fat
C. The art of arranging dishes
D. Components in a typical meal
E. Reduce daily sugar intake
F. Drink a lot of water
G. Implement Five-a-day
HOW TO STAY HEALTHY
96. _________________
People who eat a lot of fruit and vegetables are less likely to have heart problems. A variety
of fruit and vegetables should make up about a third of the food you eat each day. You should eat
at least five portions of fruit and vegetables a day. A portion is e.g. a banana, an apple, a pear, one
slice of melon or pineapple or two plums. Remember that potatoes don't count because they're a
starchy food.
97. _________________
Eating too much salt can raise your blood pressure. And people with high blood pressure are
three times more likely to develop heart disease or have a stroke than people with normal blood
pressure. Lots of people think they don't eat much salt, especially if they don't add it to their
food. But don't be so sure! Three-quarters (75%) of the salt we eat is already in the food we buy,
such as breakfast cereals, soups, sauces and ready meals. So you could easily be eating too much
salt without realizing it.
98. _________________
Having too much saturated fat can cause heart disease. Try to cut down on food that is high
in saturated fat, such as meat, pies, cheese, butter, lard, cream and cakes, and have foods that are
rich in unsaturated fat instead, such as vegetable oils (including sunflower, rapeseed and olive
oil), oily fish, avocados, nuts and seeds.
99. _________________
Having sugary foods and drinks too often can cause tooth decay, especially if you have
them between meals. Many foods that contain added sugar can also be high in calories, so cutting
down could help you control your weight. Try to eat fewer foods with added sugar, such as
sweets, cakes and biscuits, and drink fewer sugary soft and fizzy drinks.
100. _________________
About 60% of your body weight is made of water. If you don't get enough water, you can
become dehydrated. Severe cases of dehydration can cause dizziness, confusion, and even
seizures. Drink about 6 to 8 glasses of water every day and even more when the weather is warm.
Don't drink too much coffee or tea as they can dehydrate you.
Trang 10

Decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F).
101.

Eating lots of fruit and vegetables can reduce your risk for heart disease.

102.

High salt intake decreases blood pressure, which can lead to heart disease.

103.

The foods we buy can contain more salt than we realize.

104.

Eating too many foods high in saturated fats can be bad for your health.

105.

Vegetable oils like olive, sunflower or canola are rich in saturated fat.
Your answers:

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

Part 4: Questions 106 - 115, 10 marks.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions from 106 to 110 by choosing
one answer A, B, C or D only. Write your answers in the box.
Black Friday
The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving is always
on a Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This day has come to be known as Black Friday. It has
been the busiest shopping day of the year since 2005. Most stores offer great deals on Black
Friday. They open their doors in the wee hours of the morning. They try to attract shoppers with
big discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper than usual. Stores may even lose money on
these items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for other people while they are in the store.
Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The problem is that there are not enough lowpriced items to go around. Each store may only have a few. These items are in high demand.
People stand in long lines to get such great deals. They may line up hours before a store opens.
They may be hoping to get a low price on a TV or laptop, but not everyone who wants one will
get one. Some people leave disappointed. The situation can be tense. Some Black Friday events
have been violent. Large, eager crowds have trampled workers. Fights have broken out over toys
or people cutting in line. People have shot one another over parking spots. But most Black Friday
events are safe and fun. Still, if you plan on going, expect large crowds and a bit of shoving.
So where does the name “Black Friday” come from? It was first used in Philadelphia in the
1950s. The police called this day Black Friday because of the heavy traffic it drew. In the 1960s,
stores tried to rename the day “Big Friday”. It did not stick. The name “Black Friday” continued
to spread across the country. It seems that it is here to stay. Now people all over the country take
part in the event known as Black Friday. It is even spreading to other parts of the world. Stores
have held Black Friday events in the U.K., Australia, and Brazil since 2012. In Costa Rica Black
Friday is known as “Viernes Negro”. And in Mexico, stores offer an annual weekend of
discounts. They call it “El Buen Fin,” which means “the good weekend” in Spanish. I guess the
language of savings is universal.
106. According to the text, why do stores set prices so low on some items that they lose
money? A. They want people to enjoy the holidays.
B. They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store.
C. They are in a giving mood because the holiday season is just beginning.
D. They are trying to get rid of old items from last year to make room for new items.
107. Which is NOT true about Black Friday?
Trang 11

A. Black Friday is always the day after Thanksgiving.
B. Black Friday is the busiest shopping day of the year.
C. Black Friday is a national holiday.
D. Black Friday is the start of the holiday shopping season.
108. Where does the name Black Friday come from?
A. The police called this day Black Friday because there is a lot of traffic.
B. The stores called this day Black Friday because it is a serious shopping day.
C. The police called this day Black Friday to remember the victims of violence.
D. The stores called this day Black Friday because they make a lot of money.
109. Which best explains the main idea of the third
paragraph? A. People stand in long lines on Black Friday.
B. Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals.
C. Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year.

D. Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one.
110. Which country does not participate in Black Friday?
A. France B. Costa Rica C. Brazil D. United Kingdom 111. Which happened first?
A. Stores tried to rename the day after Thanksgiving “Big
Friday.” B. Black Friday events began happening in Australia.
C. Police began calling the day after Thanksgiving “Black Friday.”
D. Black Friday became the busiest shopping day of the year.

112. Which title best expresses the author's purpose in writing this text?
A. Black Friday: Stories from the Parking Lot
B. Black Friday: Why You Should Go This Year
C. Black Friday: The Stuff That You Should Know
D. Black Friday: How to Save Money on the Big Day
113. Which best describes the overall structure of the third paragraph?
A. chronological order

B. problem and solution

C. compare and contrast

D. order of importance

114. Which was not cited as one of the downsides of Black
Friday? A. Stores run out of high demand items quickly.
B. Nobody really saves any money on Black Friday.
C. There are large crowds and lots of shoving.

D. Sometimes violence occurs at Black Friday events.
115. Which best explains why Costa Ricans call Black Friday “Viernes Negro”?
A. Costa Rican stores don't want the shopping day associated with American violence.
Trang 12

B. Viernes Negro sounds more exotic and exciting than Black Friday.
C. Costa Ricans want to establish their own shopping tradition.
D. This is how you say “Black Friday” in Spanish, the language of Costa Rica.
Your answers:
106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

IV. WRITING (50 marks)
Part 1: Questions 116 - 120, 10 marks.
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between TWO and FIVE
words, including the word given. Write your answers in the blanks.
116. Sylvia doesn't have enough money, so she can't buy a new computer. (enough)
→ If Sylvia _______________________, she would buy a new computer.

117. I think you should tell your parents the truth. (were)
→ If I _______________________ , I would tell your parents the truth.
118. My cousin has decided that he isn't going to finish his engineering course. (drop)
→ My cousin has decided _______________________his engineering course.
119. All Emma's teachers say that she is able to do much more. (capable) →
All Emma's teachers say that she _______________________much more.
120. I was really pleased that I managed to pass the exam. (succeeded)
→ I was really pleased that I _______________________ the exam.

Part 2: Questions 121 - 125, 10 marks.
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your
answers in the blanks.
121. Nowadays people can talk and exchange information easily thanks to technological
advances. It is convenient.
→It is ________________________________________________________________________
122.My sister and I talked with each other a lot when we were young, but now we don't.

→ My sister____________________________________________________________________
123. He said “I don't understand why she has refused to join us on the trip”
→ He_________________________________________________________________________
124. I have never been to Apollo English Centre. Many other students learn English there.
→ I __________________________________________________________________________
125. I left my hometown to go to university in 2010. This bridge was built in my hometown 2
years after that.
→ By the time __________________________________________________________________

Trang 13

Part 3: 30 marks.
“Watching television is bad for children!” What is your opinion about the quote? Write a
paragraph of about 150 – 180 words to answer the question.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
--------------------HẾT-------------------Trang 14

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
KIÊN GIANG
------------HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 03 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG TỈNH THCS
NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
-----------------------------Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 23/3/2023

A. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Tổng điểm chấm: 200
Điểm bài thi = điểm chấm : 10

B. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM
I. LISTENING (40 marks)

Part 1: Questions 1 – 5, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm
1. C

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. C

Part 2: Questions 6 – 10, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm
6. B

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. B

Part 3: Questions 11 – 15, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm
11. Union Bank

12. Monthly

13. Online

14. Wednesdays

15. history

Part 4: Questions 16 – 25, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
16. stressful

17. cope

18. afraid

19. positive

20. housing

21. argue

22. disagreement

23. alone

24. trust

25. through

II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (60 marks)

Part 1: Question 26 - 30, 5 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. C
Part 2: Question 31 - 35, 5 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
31. D
32. C
33. B
34. B

30. D
35. A

Part 3: Question 36 - 45, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
36. D
37. B
38. D
39. A

40. B

41. A

45. A

42. C

43. D

44. B

Part 4: Question 46 - 55, 20 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm.
46. hatred
47. happiness
48. comedian
49. excitement

50. sympathized

51. noisy

55. feelings

52. energetic

53. bored

54. emotional

Trang 15

Part 5: Question 56 - 65, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
Line

Mistake

Correction

Line

Mistake

Correction

56

2

knowing

to know

61

8

symbol

symbols

57

2

spent

spend

62

8

scenery

sceneries

58

5

visit

to visit

63

9

look

a look

59

6

a

an

64

10

explore

to explore

60

7

arrange

arranged

65

11

closed

close

Part 6: Questions 66 - 75, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
66. C

69. D

70. A

71. D
72. A
73. C
74. A
III. READING (50 marks)
Part 1: Questions 76 - 85, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.

75. B

76. B
81. D

67. A

77. A
82. A

68. C

78. B
83. A

79. C
84. C

Part 2: Questions 86 - 95, 20 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm.
86.who
87. named
88. entrance
89. campus
91. Especially
92. period
93. called
94. political

80. B
85. B
90. background
95. competitions

Part 3: Questions 96 - 105, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
96. G
97. A
98. B
99. E
101. T
102.F
103.T
104.T

100. F
105.F

Part 4: Questions 106 - 115, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
106. B
107. C
108. A
109. D
111. C
112. C
113. A
114. B

110. A
115. D

IV. WRITING (50 marks)
Part 1: Questions 116 - 120, 10 marks. Mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm.
116. If Sylvia had enough money, she would buy a new computer.
117. If I were you, I would tell your parents the truth.
118. My cousin has decided to drop out of his engineering course....