TANG LOONG SECONDARY SCHOOL

THE FIRST MID TERM TEST
Subject: English 7
School year: 2024 -2025

Full name:……………………………..
Class : 7A……
Mark

Teacher's comments

NO. 1

PART I: LISTENING (2.0pts)
Question 1. Listen to the girl talking about hobbies. Circle A, B, C or D to complete
the sentences. You will listen TWICE. (1,0pt)
1. Most people enjoy hobbies………………. their free time.
A. during
B. after
C. before
D. in
2. ………people spend a lot of time on their hobbies.
A. Lots of
B. A few
C. Some
D. A lot of
3. Some creative hobbies are …………drawing, and making pottery.
A. reading
B. writing
C. listening
D. speaking
4. People like making jewelry or clothes...become writers or artists when they retire.
A. always
B. usually
C. often
D. sometimes
5. Assistant building houses for poor families is a hobby about ……..
A. creative hobbies
B. Collecting
C. Enjoying an experience
D. Helping people
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2: Listen to 5 people describing a health problem to a friend and fill in each
blank with ONE word you hear. (1,0pt)
 

Health problem

Suggestion

1

a terrible headache

see a …………………….

2

a really bad ……………..

get a massage

3

a bad cold

………………. some vitamin C

4

her whole body hurts

more …………………..

5

can't……………….

get some sleeping pills

Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART II: LANGUAGE FOCUS (3,0pts)
Question 3: Choose the word which has different pronunciation in underlined part
from the others (0,5 pt)
1. A. watched
B. missed
C. stayed
D. brushed
2. A. sofa
B. table
C. banana
D. around
3. A. wanted
B. walked
C. supported
D. decided
4. A. Thursday
B. burn
C. turn
D. sure
5. A. collected
B. opened
C. watered
D. arranged
Answers:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 4: Choose the best option in A, B, C or D to complete these sentences
(2,0pts)
1. We love gardening. We spendat least two hours in our ………. everyday.
A. kitchen
B. supermarket
C. hospital
D. garden
2. Mr. Tam …………. in his school. He is teaching English at the moment.
A. is
B. was
C. were
D. did
3. ................ out with your friends last night?
A. Did you go
B. Were you go
C. Did you went
D. Do you go
4. Minh and his his friends love ………….. to school by bike because it is green.
A. go
- B. goes
- C. going
- D. went
5. My brothers often ………………the bus to school.
A. catch
- B. catches
- C. catching
- D. caught
6. ………… books in the library in the afternoons?
A. Does they read
B. Do they read
C. Are they reading D. Did they read
7. I am afraid of getting ………….., so I have to wear a hat and use sun cream.
A. sore throat
- B. cold
- C. sunburn
- D. chapped lips
8. My sister's favorite hobby is ……………. She can fix things very well.
A. swimming
- B. repairing
- C. singing
- D. gardening
9. Care for Animals took …… of thousands of homeless dogs and cats two years ago.
A. away
- B. place
- C. part in
- D. care
10. My cousins …………….. at school all day last weekend.
A. are
- B. is
- C. were
- D. was
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0,5pt)
1. You (see)………………..……………… her grandpảents last week?
2. Minh enjoys (listen)…………………………. to music in his leisure time.
3. Mr. Tam (be) …………………….in his bed room. He is watching a football match.
4. My aunt (not live) ……………….…………..in the countryside when she was ten.
5. What your mother (do)………………………………….. at weekends?
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART III. READING (2,6 pts)
Question 6: Complete the reading passage using provided words. There is one odd.
(1,2pts)
countries
from
different
speak
volunteers
people
learn
We send young people of (1)………… nationalities on expeditions around the
world. Our volunteers get the chance to work with local people to ( 2)…………….about
different cultures.
There are ten expeditions every year. Each expedition lasts for ten weeks and takes
150 volunteers. They go to (3)…………. such as Chile, Namibia, Mongolia and Viet
Nam. Some of our (4)…………… work with local people to provide facilities, for
example, building schools. Others work in national parks or help scientists to do
environmental research.
These adventurous, young people come (5)………… all over the world. To become
a volunteer, you have to be between 17 and 25; you have to (6)………….. some English
and you also have to be enthusiastic, flexible and hard-working members of a team.

Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Question 7: Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B, or C to each of the
questions. (1,4pts)
Dentists say that the most important part of tooth care happens at home. So, what
should we do to have good oral teeth? First of all, we should brush our teeth at least twice
a day – after breakfast and dinner. To keep our teeth healthy, we should brush thoroughly
for two minutes. Move the brush back and forth and make sure to clean the back, front and
top sides of each tooth. Second, among a lot of toothbrushes in the supermarket, we should
choose a small-headed soft toothbrush. It can reach all areas of the mouth and doesn't
harm our teeth and gums. We should also replace the toothbrush every three months.
Third, we should use mouthwash after brushing. Each tooth has five sides, but a
toothbrush cleans only three of them. The mouthwash helps us clean teeth completely.
Remember to spit it out. Fourth, we should choose the best food for the health of our teeth
which includes cheeses, chicken or other meat and nuts. The food provides the calcium
which helps strengthen the teeth. Some vegetables like garlic, ginger or pepper can be
used as home remedies for a toothache. Try to avoid snacks, sugary food or soda.
Last but not least, we should visit our dentist at least every six months and every time that
we have a problem with our teeth.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to have good teeth
B. A good way to brush your teeth
C. Good time to brush your teeth
2. How many times should you brush your teeth?
A. Once a day
B. Twice a day
C. Three times a day
3. How often should you replace your toothbrush?
A. Monthly
B. Every two months C. Every three months
4. What is a good toothbrush?
A. A small-headed toothbrush
B. A small-headed soft toothbrush
C. A big-headed toothbrush
5. What are good food for your teeth?
A. Snacks and sugary food
B. Cheeses, chicken, sugar
C. Cheeses, chicken or other meat and nuts
6. When should we visit our dentist?
A. Every six months and whenever we have a problem with our teeth.
B. Every six months
C. Every four months and whenever we have a problem with our teeth.
7. What are not good for your teeth?
A. Vegetables like garlic, ginger or pepper
B. Vegetables
C. Snacks, sugary food or soda
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
PART IV. WRITING. (2,4 points)
Question 8: Find the one mistake in the sentences. (0,4 pt)
1. My little brother loves watches cartoons on television.
A
B
C
D
2. We don't visit our grandparents last weekend.
A
B C
D
3. Nga lived in the countryside when she is ten.

A
B
C D
4. Do you good at speaking and reading English?
A
B
C
D
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question 9: Complete the second sentence keep the same meaning as the first. (1,0pt)
1. Linh loves studying Literature.
-> Linh is interested …………………………………………………………………
2. I find recycling litter is interesting.
-> My interesting hobby…………………………………………………………….
3. My class has thirty-nine students.
-> There ……………………………………………………………………………...
4.  My sister is interested in reading comics.
→ My sister enjoys......................................................................................................
5. John wasn't on the beach two weeks ago.
-> He didn't…………………………………………………………………………..
Question 10: Write a paragraph of about 70 – 80 words about one of your hobby by
using the following suggestions(1,0pt)
- What is your hobby?
- When did you start?
- Who do you often share with?
- What do you need to do it?
- What are benefits?
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….

TANG LOONG SECONDARY SCHOOL

THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST
Subject: English 7
School year: 2024 -2025

Full name ……………………………..
Class: 7A…….
Mark

Teacher's comments

NO. 2

PART I: LISTENING (2.0pts)
Question 1. Listen to the girl talking about hobbies. Circle A, B , C or D to complete
the sentences. You will listen TWICE. (1,0pt)
1. Most people enjoy hobbies………………. their free time.
A. during
B. after
C. before
D. in
2. ………people spend a lot of time on their hobbies.
A. Lots of
B. A few
C. Some
D. A lot of
3. Some creative hobbies are …………drawing, and making pottery.
A. reading
B. writing
C. listening
D. speaking
4. People like making jewelry or clothes.………..become writers or artists when they
retire.
A. always
B. usually
C. often
D. sometimes
5. Assistant building houses for poor families is a hobby about ……..
A. creative hobbies
B. Collecting
C. Enjoying an experience
D. Helping people
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2: Listen to 5 people describing a health problem to a friend and fill in each
blank with ONE word you hear. (1,0pt)
 

Health problem

Suggestion

1

a terrible headache

see a …………………

2

a really bad …………….

get a massage

3

a bad cold

……………… some vitamin C

4

her whole body hurts

more ………………..

5

can't……………..

get some sleeping pills

Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART II: LANGUAGE FOCUS (3,0pts)
Question 3: Choose the word which has different pronunciation in underlined part
from the others (0,5 pt)
1. A. wanted
B. visited
C. pushed
D. needed
2. A. doctor
B. control
C. freedom
D. collect
3. A. watched
B. missed
C. studied
D. washed
4. A. singer
B. mother
C. teacher
D. herd
5. A. showed
B. pushed
C. rained
D. arrived

Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 4: Choose the best option in A, B, C or D to complete these sentences
(2,0pts)
1. My……………….is knitting kit in my free time.
A. hobby
B. hobbies
C. favourite
D. like
2. Coloured vegetables are ……………… food.
A. unhealthy
B. healthy
C. bad
D. health
3. We donated old books and clothes for ………………….. last summer.
A. every body
B. all employee
C. rich people
D. street children
4. He dislikes ………….. homework at the weekend.
A. do
B. does
C. doing
D. did
5. Minh and Hoa sometimes ………………the bus No.3 to school.
A. catch
B. catches
C. catching
D. caught
6. ………… the news in the mornings?
A. Does you read
B. Do you read
C. Are you read
D. Did you read
7. They don't want to get ………….., so they wear warm clothes.
A. red spot
B. sunburn
C. cold
D. chapped lips
8. My brother's favorite hobby is ……………. he draws very well.
A. swimming
B. drawing
C. singing
D. gardening
9. The speaking test took …… in Ha Noi last year.
A. away
B. place
C. care
D. part in
10. They…………….. at school yesterday.
A. are
B. is
C. were
D. was
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0,5pt)
1. Mr. Lam (play) …………………………….. video game with friends two days ago.
2. Mr. Smith enjoys (garden) …………………………… in his free time.
3. Nam (be) …………………in the school yard. He is talking to his friends.
4. We (not live)…………………………….in the countryside when we was young.
5. How often your mother (go)……………………………………shopping?
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART III. READING (2,6 pts)
Question 6: Complete the reading passage using provided words. There is one odd.
(1,2pts)
in
good
any
because
him
sweets
It's Sunday morning. The Browns is sitting (1)…….. the living room. They are talking for
the dinner this evening. David likes beef and Susan does, too. He says that beef is good for
children. Their father, Mr Brown, prefers chicken to beef. He asks his wife to buy some
for (2) ……... Helen, their youngest daughter, doesn't want (3)…….. meat. She would like
cakes and…….(4). Mrs Brown doesn't like beef. She doesn't like chicken, either. She
likes fish, vegetables and fruit. She says that fish and vegetables are (5)……..for old men
and everybody need to eat fruit.
At last they decide to go out for dinner (6)…….. Mrs Brown says that she can't cook so
much food for everybody in the family.

Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Question 7: Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B, or C to each of the
questions. (1,4pts)
     Why can some people live to over a hundred, while most of us die much sooner? How
long you live depends on where you live. A person who lives in a city in Australia will
probably live longer than a person living in a poor part of Africa. So, what can you do to
live longer? You can make healthy choices. That means eating healthy foods and getting
enough exercise.
     Being overweight may make your life shorter because you have a higher chance to
have health problems. You can start by changing what you eat. Eat less red meat instead of
chicken or fish. Fish is really good for helping you live a longer life. You should eat lots
of vegetables, so you can get a lot of the vitamins you need. You also need to get enough
exercise. There are different types of exercises. Some exercise is good for the heart. Other
types of exercise is good for making you stronger. Lifting weights is a good example.
Along with taking care of your body, you also have to take care of your mind. Don't work
too hard. Try to relax and do something fun each day. If you follow these simple rules,
you will have a good chance of living a long time.
1. What is the reading text about?   
A. How to live a long life.   
B. You live longer thanks to the place you live.   
C. Being overweight makes your life shorter.   
2. What are healthy choices? 
A. Eating healthy foods B. Getting enough exercise   C. A and B
3. Why should you eat vegetables? 
A. Because vegetables are better for your health than meat. 
B. Because vegetables are easy to make healthy dishes. 
C. Because vegetables helps you get a lot of the vitamins you need.
4. How is lifting weights good for you? 
A. It makes your heart stronger.
B. It makes you stronger.
C. It makes you lose weight.
5. Which statement is NOT mentioned in the text?
A. Mental health is also important.
B. Fish and chicken are better for your health than red meat.
C. One of the secrets to a long life is to eat lots of vegetables instead of doing exercise.
6. You should eat more fish because:
A. It is delicious.
B. It is good for helping you live a longer life.
C. It is cheap.
7. What should you do to take care of your mind?
A. Relax and do something fun every day
B. Work hard
C. Work too hard
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
PART IV. WRITING. (2,4 points)
Question 8: Find one mistake in the sentences (0,4pt)
1. I love films but I didn't watch them on television.
A
B
C
D
2. Do you a new student in this class at present?
A
B
C
D

3. Lam likes read books in the library most.
A
B
C
D
4. Mrs. White lives healthily, she doesn't gets up late every morning.
A
B
C
D
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question 9: Complete the second sentence keep the same meaning as the first.
(1,0pts)
1. I find taking photos interesting.
-> My interesting hobby………………………………………………………
2. My school has twenty classes.
-> There ………………………………………………………………………
3. She likes studying Literature.
-> She is ………………………………………………………………………
4.  My grandfather is interested in reading newspapers.
→ My grandfather enjoys........................................................................................
5. We wasn't on the beach last summer.
-> We didn't…………………………………………………………………...
Question 10: Write a paragraph of about 70 – 80 words about one of your hobby by
using the following suggestions(1,0pt)
- What is your hobby?
- When did you start?
- Who do you often share with?
- What do you need to do it?
- What are benefits?
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………..…………………………..

NO.1
PART I: LISTENING (2,0pts)

ANSWER KEY

Question 1: Listen to the girl talking about hobbies. A, B , C or D to complete
the sentences. (5 x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. A
2.C
3.B
4.D
5.D
Question 2: Listen to 5 people describing a health problem to a friend and fill
in each blank with ONE word you hear. ( 5 x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. doctor       2. backache
3. take
4. exercise
5. sleep
PART II: LANGUAGE FOCUS (3,0pts)
Question 3: Choose the word which has different pronunciation in underlined
part from the others ( 5 x 0,1 = 0,5 point)
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
Question 4: Choose the best option in A, B, C or D to complete these sentences
(10 x 0,2 = 2,0pts)
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. C
Question 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. (5 x 0,1 = 0,5pts)
- 1. Did…see - 2. listening
- 3. is - 4. didn't/ did not live
- 5. does…do
PART III. READING (2,6 pts)
Question 6: Complete the reading passage using provided words. There is one
odd. (6 x 0,2 = 1,2pts)
1. different
2. learn
3. countries
4. volunteers
5. from
6. speak
Question 7: Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B, or C to each of the
questions. (7 x 0,2 = 1,4pts)
1.A
2.B
3.C
4.B
5.C
6.A
7.C
PART IV. WRITING. (2.4 points)
Question 8: Find one mistake in the sentences. ( 4 x 0,1 = 0,4 pt)
Answers:
1.B
2.B
3.C
4.A
Question 9: Complete the second sentence keep the same meaning as the first.
( 5 x 0,2 = 1.0pts)
1. Linh is interested in studying Literature.
2. My interesting hobby is recycling litter.
3. There are thirty – nine students in my class.
4. My sister enjoys reading comics.
6. John didn't go to the beach two weeks ago.
Question 10: Write a paragraph of about 70 – 80 words about one of your
hobby by using the following suggestions(1,0pt)

Students' s anwers
Vocab: 0,2
Gram: 0,3

Ideas: 0,3

Organization: 0,2

Lưu ý: HS làm đúng nhưng không giống HDC vẫn được tính điểm
NO. 2
PART I: LISTENING (2,0pts)
Question 1: Listen to the girl talking about hobbies. A, B , C or D to complete
the sentences. (5 x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
Question 2: Listen to 5 people describing a health problem to a friend and fill
in each blank with ONE word you hear. ( 5 x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. doctor       2. backache
3. take
4. exercise
5. sleep
PART II: LANGUAGE FOCUS (3,0pts)
Question 3: Choose the word which has different pronunciation in underlined
part from the others ( 5 x 0,1 = 0,5 point)
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
Question 4: Choose the best option in A, B, C or D to complete these sentences
(10 x 0,2 = 2,0pts)
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. C
- Question 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. (5 x 0,1 = 0,5pts)
1. Did…play 2. gardening
3. is
4. didn't/ did not live - 5. does…go
PART III. READING (2,6 pts)
Question 6: Complete the reading passage using provided words. There is one
odd. (6 x 0,2 = 1,2pts)
1. in
2. him
3. any
4. sweets
5. good
6. because
Question 7: Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B, or C to each of the
questions. (7 x 0,2 = 1,4pts)
1.A
2. C
3.C
4.B
5.C
6. B
7.A
PART IV. WRITING. (2.4 points)
Question 8: Question 8: Find one mistake in the sentences. ( 4 x 0,1 = 0,4 pt)
Answers:
1.B
2.A
3.B
4.C
Question 9: Complete the second sentence keep the same meaning as the first.
( 5 x 0,2 = 1,0pts)
1. I find taking photos is interesting.
-> My interesting hobby………………………………………………………
2. My school has twenty classes.
-> There ………………………………………………………………………
3. She likes studying Literature.
-> She is ………………………………………………………………………
4.  My grandfather is interested in reading newspapers.
→ My grandfather enjoys........................................................................................
5. We wasn't on the beach last summer.

-> We didn't…………………………………………………………………...

1. My interesting hobby is taking photos.
2. There are twenty classes in my school.
3. She is interested in studying Literature.
4. My grandfather enjoys gardening.
5. We didn't go to the beach last summer.
Question 10: Write a paragraph of about 70 – 80 words about one of your
hobby by using the following suggestions(1,0pt)
Students' answers
Vocab: 0,2
Gram: 0,3
Ideas: 0,3
Organization: 0,2
Lưu ý: HS làm đúng nhưng không giống HDC vẫn được tính điểm
Prediction
Class
Total
Giỏi
Khá
Đạt
CĐ
7A1
38
10
15
12
01
7A2
40
0
08
25
07
7A3
39
0
07
24
08
7A4
40
0
05
27
08
7A5
39
0
5
26
08
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