SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO


(Bài thi có 45 câu hỏi và 01 bài viết)
Hoc sinh viết câu trả lời lên phiếu trả lời.
KỲ THÌ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 - MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 01/06/2022
Thời lượng: 60 phút
(Không tính thời gian phát đề và nghe)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………Số báo danh:…………………………….
• Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
• Phần thi nghe kéo dài 10 phút; gồm 02 phần ; mỗi phần nghe 02 lần.
• Sau khi nghe xong, thí sinh còn 50 phút để làm các phần còn lại.
I. Listening (2 points)
Part 1: Listen to the first part of of a story about a dream holiday of Mark and Rosa. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D)
1. Mark and Rosa decided to go on their dream holiday for two weeks in ________.
A. May B. June C. July D. August
2. The flight was delayed and they finally got on the plane ________ late.
A. two hours B. twelve hours C. twenty hours D. two days
3. They couldn't fly to San Antonio because there was ________.
A. an earthquake B. a forest fire C. a festival D. a hurricane
4. The hotel was next to the sea, but the sea was too ________ to swim in.
A. dirty B. cold C. hot D. dangerous
5. The hotel swimming pool was full of ________.
A. snakes B. frogs C. lizards D. crocodiles
Part 2: Listen to the last part of the story. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D).
6. For breakfast there were only different types of ________.
A. meat B. fish C. fruits D. vegetables
7. The lettuce bowl was full of ________.
A. sugar B. salt C. ants D. bees
8. They felt really terrified because of the ________.
A. snow and thunder B. thunder and rain C. wind and snow D. wind and rain
9. Because of the weather, they had to stay another ________ in the hotel with nothing to do.
A. day B. two days C. three days D. ten days
10. They arrived in San Antonio five days late, and the weather had been ________ there all the time!
A. stormy B. hot C. perfect D. violent

II. Reading (2.0 points)
Part 1: Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct word (A, B, C or D).
Billions of people still breathe unhealthy air
According to the 2022 update of the World Health Organization's (WHO) air quality database, almost all global population (11) _______ polluted air. A record number of over 6000 cities in 117 countries are now monitoring air quality, but the people living in them are still taking in (12) ______ levels of nitrogen dioxide (NO2), a common urban pollutant.
The findings have made the World Health Organization to highlight the importance of limiting fossil fuel use and taking other steps to (13) _______ air pollution levels.
“It is unacceptable to still have 7 million preventable deaths and countless preventable lost years of good health (14) ________ air pollution. That's what we're saying when we look at the mountain of air pollution data, evidence, and solutions available. Yet too (15)______ investments are still being sunk into a polluted environment rather than in clean, healthy air,” said Dr Maria Neira, WHO Director, Department of Environment, Climate Change and Health.
(Adapted from www.who.int)
11. A. eats B. breathes C. overcooks D. simmers
12. A. unhealthy B. healthcare C. healthful D. healthily
13. A. achieve B. maintain C. reduce D. increase
14. A. due to B. because C. although D. while
15. A. more B. little C. much D. many


Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the questions.
When it comes to health, we often have fitness and food goals like losing weight, exercising regularly, eating healthier or making better food choices. Losing weight could take months. Exercising regularly could take years while eating healthier and making better food choices are hard to measure.
Before we achieve these goals, we may feel discouraged and give up. To feel motivated, we can break down these health goals into smaller and more realistic steps. Here are 4 good eating habits which will definitely help us to achieve our food goals. For those of us with diabetes, these healthy eating habits will also help us to control our blood sugar.
• Choose Water: Set a goal to drink water instead of sugar-sweetened drinks.
• Eat Slowly: It takes about 20 minutes for your brain to send out signals that you are full. Eat slowly. Take the extra time to pay attention to what we are eating and how much.
• Eat Fruit and Vegetables: Set a goal to fill half your plate with fruit and vegetables at every meal. Fruit and vegetables are naturally low in saturated and trans fat, and rich in dietary fibre, vitamins and minerals.
• Swop to Wholegrains: Eating wholegrain foods such as brown rice, wholemeal bread and rolled oats can help reduce the risk of developing heart disease and diabetes. They can also help with weight management because they keep you feeling full longer and reduce the need for snacking. 
These 4 good eating habits take time to develop. Be patient. These changes, no matter how small, make a big difference to our health.
(Adapted from www.healthhub.sg/)
16. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Four Health Benefits Of Weight Management
B. The Immense Benefits Of Daily Physical Activity
C. Good Eating Habits To Achieve Your Health Goals
D. Regular Exercise And Healthy Food To Maintain Youth
17. According to the passage, why should we eat slowly?
A. Because we need time to pay attention to when to eat healthy food.
B. Because if we eat fast, we do not know how delicious the food is.
C. Because our brain needs 20 minutes to realise that we are eating.
D. Because it takes time for the brain to inform that our stomach is full.
18. The word “motivated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. encouraged B. embarrassed C. frustrated D. astonished
19. The word “they” in the fourth eating habit refers to _______.
A. diabetes B. wholegrains C. minerals D. vitamins
20. According to the passage, which of the following should be voided?
A. Soda B. Oranges C. Brown rice D. Lettuce

III. Vocabulary and Grammar (4.0 points)
Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the questions.
21. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. garnish B. replace C. tailor D. witness
22. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. wanders B. defends C. swallows D. contacts
23. February is ________ month of the year.
A. short B. shorter than C. as short as D. the shortest

24. ________ people think that children learn language by imitation.
A. A lot of B. A little C. Another D. Much
25. She ________ a scholarship last month.
A. wins B. won C. is won D. is winning
26. She advised him ________ too much.
A. not drink B. not drinking C. not to drink D. not drank
27. Many local people objected ________ the building of the new airport.
A. about B. with C. to D. for
28. He held a party and the noise levels causes some ________ to his neighbors.
A. inconveniently B. inconvenience C. conveniently D. convenient
29. Stress has an effect on both your physical and ________ health.
A. cooperative B. dependent C. mental D. doubtful
30. Yoga can improve our powers of ________ .
A. embarrassment B. concentration C. obesity D. severity
31. Having excellent crops means that farmers become ________ be selling what they have grown.
A. prosperous B. imperial C. breathtaking D. nutritious
32. She told him not to worry because buying a dress at a discount price wouldn't ________ the bank.
A. beat B. lend C. lock D. break
33. Stronger measures will have to be taken to bring down unemployment. The synonym of “measures” is ________ .
A. amounts B. applications C. areas D. actions
34. Computer-controlled robots are replacing manual workers in many industries. The antonym of “manual” is ________ .
A. empathetic B. sympathetic C. automatic D. specific
35. The doctor wants him to ________ sweets and fatty foods so that he can lose weight.
A. cut back on B. look up to C. run into D. cheer up
36. She had to ________ the fact that she would never walk again after the accident.
A. set off B. turn up C. face up to D. run out of
37. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
The Louvre, where is the world's biggest and busiest museum, was called the Napoleon Museum at the start of the 19th century.
A. where B. was called C. at the start D. century
Question 38-40: Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentence.
38. They have found a solution.
A. A solution has been found. B. A solution is found.
C. A solution had been found. D. A solution was found.
39. She asked the boy. “Why are you crying?”
A. She asked the boy why are you crying. B. She asked the boy why you are crying.
C. She asked the boy why was he crying. D. She asked the boy why he was crying.
40. Manage your time well and you won't feel stressed out.
A. When you managed your time well, you felt stressed out.
B. If you manage your time well, you won't feel stressed out.
C. Because you manage your time well, you feel stressed out.
D. Although you managed your time well, you felt stressed out.
IV. Communication (0.5 point)
Write ONE word in each blank to make complete conversations between the tourists and the locals.

Conversation 1:
Tourist: Excuse me, is there (41)_____________ near here?
Local: Yes, there is. Now go straight up Orange Street for two blocks and turn left onto to Pine Street.
The bank is on the right.
Tourist: (42)_____________ you very much.

Conversation 2:
Tourist: Excuse me, (43)_____________ can I get to the Penguin Restaurant?
Local: Oh, it's not far (44)_____________ here. Go straight ahead for two blocks and turn left on King's Road, the restaurant is next (45)_____________ the library.
Tourist: Thanks a lot.

V. Writing (1.5 points)
In about 120 words, write a paragraph about positive effects and negative effects of tourism on our country.
------- This is the end of the test. -------


























SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THÌ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2021-2022- Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 02/06/2021 - Thời gian làm bài : 60 PHÚT
(không tính thời gian phát đề và làm phần nghe)
(Bài thi có 55 câu hỏi và một bài viết, học sinh viết câu trả lời trên answer sheet)
Số báo danh:___________________Họ và tên học sinh:_________________________
I. Listening (1.0 point):
II. PRONUNCIATION AND COMMUNICATION ( 1.5 points)
Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others
11. A. leak B. health C. peace D. stream
12. A. span B. snack C. sand D. stage
13. A. jeans B. pants C. shirts D. shorts
14. A. depended B. instructed C. interested D. impressed
15. A. century B. compliment C. convenience D. consumer
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
16. A. baggy B. casual C. unique D. modern
17. A. design B. gather C. consist D. provide
18. A. bamboo B. cattle C. journey D. forest
19. A. attendance B. candidate C. scholarship D. scenery
20. A. convenient B. enormous C. impressive D. natural

What does Ben say to his mother? Put A-F in the correct places to make a complete conversation





III. READING ( 2.0 points)
Read the passage carefully and fill in each blank with the correct option
WHAT MAKES A GOOD LANGUAGE LEARNER?
• Don't be afraid of making mistakes. People often get things wrong. Good language learners notice their mistakes and learn from (26)_______.
• Do group activities. A good language learner always (27)_______ for opportunities to talk with other students.
• Make notes during every class. Notes help you to remember new language. Look (28)_______ your notes when you do your homework.
• Use a dictionary. Good language learners often use dictionaries to (29)_______ the meaning of words they don't know. They also make their own vocabulary lists.
• Do extra practice. Test and improve your language, reading and listening skills with self-study material. You can find a lot of this online.
• Enjoy learning. Watch a TV series or film, listen to songs, play video games or (30)_______ a book. It's never too late to become a good language learner.
26. A. her B. him C. you D. them
27. A. look B. looks C. is looked D. are looked
28. A. at B. forward C. about D. with
29. A. look B. support C. lose D. check
30. A. surf B. speak C. read D. do
Read the passage below carefully and choose the correct option
The giraffe is the tallest living animal. It can reach a height of more than 18 feet (5.5 meters). Giraffes live on the plains of eastern Africa. The scientific name of the giraffe is Giraffa camelopardalis.
Giraffes have a short body, but their legs and neck are very long. The coat is light brown with reddish brown spots. Many giraffes have two short horns between the ears. Giraffes have large nostrils and a good sense of smell. Their tongues are more than 18 inches (45 centimeters) long.
Giraffes are plant eaters. They can reach leaves at the top of trees. But they do not eat grass. It is very hard for them to reach the ground because the neck is stiff. To drink, a giraffe must spread its legs far apart to reach down.
Giraffes live in herds of up to 20 animals. They use their good eyesight to watch for danger. Lions are the giraffe's main enemy. Giraffes try to gallop away from enemies, but they will fight if necessary. They can run more than 30 miles (48 kilometers) an hour.
A female giraffe gives birth to one calf at a time. The newborn can usually follow its mother around within hours. Giraffes live about 20 to 25 years.
Giraffes are still common in eastern Africa. They are protected there inside national parks. In other places, however, hunting has reduced the number of giraffes. People use giraffe skin to make leather.
31. The giraffe is the tallest living animal but their _______ is short.
A. leg B. body C. neck D. tongue
32. What do giraffes eat?
A. flowers near the ground B. grass on the ground
C. leaves at the op of trees D. birds in the trees
33. What does the word “gallop” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. run B. swim C. fly D. climb

34. What does the word “they” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. lions B. crocodiles C. cheetahs D. giraffes
35. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the giraffe ?
A. Giraffes are not protected inside national parks.
B. Giraffes use their good eyesight to watch for danger.
C. Giraffes live in groups of up to twenty animals.
D. Giraffes have large nostrils and a goods sense of smell.

IV. Vocabulary and Grammar (4 points)
36. My idol's birthday is _________ the 28th of October.
A. at B. in C. on D. for
37. Practicing speaking, listening, reading and writing can help you learn a language _________.
A. affect B. effect C. effective D. effectively
38. _________ devices can help you save a lot of money from your electricity bill.
A. Time-consuming B. Time-saving
C. Energy-saving D. Energy-consuming
39. Educating new drivers is important for the _________ of accidents.
A. prevention B. invention C. inspiration D. conservation
40. The floor _________ by the little kids.
A. was cleaning carefully B. was carefully cleaned
C. was carefully cleaning D. carefully cleaned
41. I prefer cooking _________ the dishes
A. to wash B. washing C. to be washing D. to washing
42. The key to _________ a match is lots of practice and confidence.
A. winning B. won C. be won D. wins
43. He used to take good care of many younger brothers and sisters when he was young so he has much _________ of working with kids.
A. achievements B. consumption C. experience D. limitation
44. _________ he doesn't have much free time, he always helps his friends when they have problems
A. Therefore B. Although C. But D. So
45. Elon Musk is the man _________ created the self-driving car and may take us to Mars.
A. where B. whom C. whose D. that
46. She loves ducks, _________?
A. doesn't she B. isn't she C. didn't she D. hasn't she
47. Louis_________in Canada for twenty-one years.
A. has lived B. have lived C. has been lived D. have been lived
48. Jimmy has a unique talent for languages. He can learn to speak a language very well in six months.
The SYNONYM of “unique” is _________.
A. terrible B. limited C. special D. disappointed
49. I felt terrific last week when my teacher told me that I had won a scholarship.
The ANTONYM of “terrific” is _________.
A. happy B. proud C. terrible D. marvelous


50. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts of the following sentence.
Everybody felt hungry and tired so they sat down under the tree and have lunch.
A B C D
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentence
51. I last met him ten years ago.
A. I have recently seen him. B. I haven't seen him for ten years.
C. The last time I saw him was last year. D. I am going to meet him in ten years' time.
52. They use this pencil to draw thick lines.
A This pencil is used to draw thick lines.
B. This pencil is used to drawing thick lines.
C. Thick lines used to be drawn with this pencil.
D. Thick lines are used to being drawn by this pencils.
53. He said to her “I will help you when you need me.”
A. He told her that he will help her when she needs me.
B. He said that he would help you when she needed him.
C. He promised that he would help her when she needed him.
D. He asked her whether she would help him when she needed him.
54. He wishes he could have more time to go swimming everyday.
A. If he could swim, he would have more time everyday.
B. If he had more time, he would go swimming everyday.
C. He says that he has more time to go swimming everyday.
D. He is pleased that he has more time to go swimming everyday.
55. Before he left the room, he turned off all the devices to save electricity.
A After he turned off all the devices to save electricity, he left the room.
B. He left the room without turning off all the devices to save electricity.
C. He left the room although he did not turn off all the devices to save electricity.
D. Because he was in the right room, he turned off all the devices to save electricity.

V. WRITING ( 1.5 points):
Write a paragraph of about 100 words about three benefits of living in the city.















SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THÌ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH, ngày thi 08/07/2020
Thời gian: Nghe (10 phút) + Đọc Viết (60 phút)
I. LISTENING (2 points) - 10 questions
II. READING ( 3.0 points)
Read the passage carefully and fill in each blank with the correct option
Ways to improve English by yourself
Virginia Lang, an Australian English teacher, shares her tips on improving your English by yourself.
First, change the language settings on your devices such as phones or laptops to (11)____. It forces you to think in English all the time and it will help you to (12)____ more quickly.
Second, read with your passions. Read something you are interested (13)____. If you're into sport, read a sports magazine. When you read, read actively and consider the tools that you can use while reading. Highlighters are great for highlighting new words (14)____ you do not know. Have a good online dictionary or a good paper dictionary so that you can check the definition and put it to memory as well.
Third, listen to podcasts and watch videos and television in English. You should also write down or say aloud summaries of what you (15)____ heard or watched.
(Adapted from www.abc.net.au)
11. A. Italian B. French C. Vietnamese D. English
12. A. improving B. improved C. improve D. improvement
13. A. in B. at C. on D. up
14. A. which B. whom C. who D. whose
15. A. can B. will C. have D. are
Read the passage below carefully and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D.
Step 1: Make your own cleaning products. Doing this will reduce the use of plastics because you are reusing plastic containers to hold the cleaning products.
Step 2: Use cloth bags at the grocery store and for all your grocery needs. If you don't have a cloth bag with you when you are shopping, ask yourself if you need a bag at all.
Step 3: Buy energy-saving devices. They may cost more but you will save money because they use less energy. Replace regular bulbs with energy-efficient bulbs. You pay a little more, but the life of the bulb is significantly longer.
Step 4: Set up compost bins. Add fewer things to the landfill sites by composting your kitchen scraps. All plant-derived foods, coffee grounds and tea leaves can be composted. Have small containers in your home to place them in. Use this rich fertile soil in the garden.
Step 5: Grow an organic garden. If you don't have the space or time to grow a garden, shop locally and support local farmers.
Step 6: Reduce the use of car travel. Consider using public transportation, walking, and bike riding to get to where you want to go. If you must travel by car, shop for a fuel-efficient vehicle.
16. What can be the best title for the passage?
A. When to Save the World B. How to Make Your Home Safer
C. How to Protect the Earth D. When to Make Your Life Better
17. According to paragraph 1, why should you create your own cleaning products?
A. Because this can help decrease the number of plastic containers.
B. Because making your own cleaning products can save you money.
C. Because your own cleaning products are better for the environment.
D. Because it will protect your family from harmful cleaning products.
18. What does the word  energy-efficient in paragraph 3 mean?
A. using little energy B. saving almost no energy
C. wasting much energy D. consuming a lot of energy
19. What does the word them in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. Compost bins
B. The landfill sites
C. Small containers in your home
D. Plant-derived foods, coffee grounds and tea leaves
20. According to paragraph 4, which of the following can be composted?
A. Coffee tables B. Shoes C. Vegetables D. Cloth bags
21. According to paragraph 6, what should you do to reduce the use of car travel?
A. Go on foot. B. Travel by air.
C. Avoid using public transportation. D. Buy a powerful vehicle.

Read the passage below carefully and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D.
The Secrets of Sleep
Research by the National Sleep Foundation in Washington says that we all need eight hours sleep every night. Scientists have found that people who sleep for less than six and a half hours a night are more often ill than people who sleep for eight hours. Going without sleep also increases the chance of serious illness. People who sleep for less than five hours often die young, and do less well at work.
The scientists found that, on average, adults sleep for seven hours a night, with thirty-two percent sleeping less than six hours. It also says that the idea that we need less sleep as we get older is completely untrue. “People have no idea how important sleep is to their lives," Dr Thomas Roth, director of the Foundation says. “Good health needs good sleep."
“But not too much of it,” says Professor Jim Horne of Loughborough University. “Sleep is like food and drink” he believes: “you would always like to have a little bit more, but that doesn't mean you need it." Professor Horne studied a group of people who could spend as many hours as they wanted in bed; after ten hours they didn't find it any easier to get up in the morning. And people who sleep for more than nine hours a night die younger than people who usually sleep for seven or eight!
(Adapted from "New Cutting Edge, Pre-intermediate” by Cunningham, Moor, Carr)
22. What does the word "serious" in paragraph 1 mean?
A. bad or dangerous B. important and valuable
C. unimportant or unnecessary D. unique and impressive
23. According to the scientists in the passage, how long do most adults sleep on average?
A. For no more than six hours a night.
B. For less than six and a half hours a night.
C. For seven hours a night.
D. For more than nine hours a night.
24. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Adults who sleep for seven hours a night
B. Adults who sleep for less than five hours a night
C. People who could spend as many hours as they wanted in bed
D. Professor Jim Horne and the scientists of Loughborough University
25. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. People that do not sleep enough may get sick.
B. Everybody needs less sleep when they get older.
C. People who sleep for ten hours each night are healthy.
D. Everybody knows how important sleep is to their lives.

III. Communication and Pronunciation (1.5 points):
Complete each conversation with a correct response (A, B, or C).
26. “What's your teacher like?” - "____“
A. Five lessons a week. B. Very nice, I think. C. Books and movies.
27. "I hope Jack and Jill will get here soon. - "____"
A. I hope to see him. B. I'm sure they will. C. Congratulations!
28. "It's not very warm in here. - ”____“
A. It's not mine. B. Yes, please. C. No, it isn't.
29. “I love chocolate and coffee." -"____"
A. Who are they? B So do I. C. How was it?
30. "When's your birthday?" " -"____"
A. I'm 15. B. It was last Sunday. C. Not at all.

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three words in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
31.A show B. crop C. pond D. cost
32. A. entrance B. cattle C. aspect D campus
33.A. treasure B. sweater C creature D. weather
34.A. collected B. divided C. instructed D. worshiped
35.A. educates B. develops C. disappoints D. examines
Choose the word which differs from the other three words in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
36.A. gather B. award C. instruct D. comprise
37.A. travel B. attend C. inspire D. control
38.A. region B. temple C. design D. climate
39.A. century B. candidate C. religion D. scholarship
40.A. convenient B. impressive C. primary D. official
IV. Vocabulary and Grammar (2.5 points):
Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions.
41. The house comprises three bedrooms, a kitchen, and a living room. The SYNONYM of "comprise” is ______.
A. respond to B. account for C. cope with D. consist of
42. In ancient times, people believed the earth was the center of the universe.They thought that the sun, moon and stars all orbited around the earth. The ANTONYM of "ancient" is ______
A. modern B. peaceful C. traditional D. fashionable
43. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts of the following sentence.
The new camera that my father bought for $1000 did not work, so he took it back the shop.
A. that B. bought C. did not work D. took it back
44. My best friend's birthday is____ 16th September.
A. on B. in C.at D. since
45. She denied ______ anything about the missing diamond.
A. know B. to know C. knowing D. to knowing
46. Marie Curie is the woman______discovered radium.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
47. Hundreds of thousands of people ______ by the Coronavirus.
A. has been killed B. have been killed C. has killed D. have killed
48. When he was a boy, he ______ two kilometers to school every day.
A. Walked B. can walk C. walks D. will walk
49. He_____ the guitar since he was twelve years old.
A. Played B. plays C has played D. was playing
50. Yesterday was so much fun,____?
A. was it B. wasn't it C. were they D. weren't they
51. We should fine anyone who uses______to catch fish.
A. electrify B. electric C. electrical D. electricity
52. Confidence is the key to his ______.
A. succeed B success C. successful D. successfully
53. The______of professional sports has been increasing recently.
A popular B. popularly C. popularize D. popularity
54. The _____ generous and caring man was sadly missed by everyone when he was gone.
A considerate B. interactive C. disappointing D. exhausting
55. We've reached our goal of $100,000 ______the help of the public.
A. in spite B thanks to C. in addition D. even though
56. He_____the birthday cake into eight pieces.
A comprised B. examined C. controlled D. divided
57._____at lectures is compulsory. If students miss a class, they lose some points.
A. Attendance B. Association C. Entrance D. Scholarship
58. I ______ watch any television because I spend most of my time on my laptop.
A. generally B. usually C. hardly D. occasionally
59. Tet is the most important ______ in Vietnamese culture.
A. movement B. assignment C. celebration D. condition
60. One of the many ______ of foreign travel is learning how to cope with problems.
A. experience B. inventions C benefits D. interaction
61. He said to her, "I'll phone you tomorrow."
A. He promised that he would phone you tomorrow
B. He promised that he would phone you the day after.
C. He promised that he would phone her the day after.
62. Walt Disney Animation Studios produced Frozen II in 2019.
A. Frozen II was produced by Walt Disney Animation Studios in 2019.
B. Frozen II was being produced by Walt Disney Animation Studios in 2019.
C.Frozen II had been produced by Walt Disney Animation Studios in 2019.


63. I can't sleep at night when I drink much coffee.
A. I can sleep at night if I drink much coffee.
B. If I can't sleep at night, I drink much coffee.
C. If I drink much coffee, I can't sleep at night.
64. I wish we had more money to buy a larger house.
A. We would have bought a larger house if we had had more money
B. We might buy a larger house if we had more money.
C. We can buy a larger house if we have more money.
65. I tried to look happy in spite of feeling disappointed.
A. When I tried to look happy, I felt disappointed.
B. I felt disappointed, but I tried to look happy.
C. I tried to look happy because I felt disappointed.

V. Writing (1 point)
Write a letter of about 80 to 120 words to your pen pal about the type of clothes that you like to wear the most and explain why you like it.
You must begin your letter with "Dear John," and end it with the name "Alex".
You must not use your real name in tests.































SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THÌ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH, ngày thi 29/05/2019
Thời gian: Nghe (12 phút) + Đọc Viết (60 phút)
Số báo danh: Họ và tên học sinh:
Họ tên và chữ ký Thầy/Cô Giám thị 1:
THÍ SINH GHI CÂU TRẢ LỜI CỦA MÌNH TRÊN PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI
(Thí sinh ghi các chữ cái A, B, C, D... vào phiếu trả lời từ câu 1 đến câu 50.)
I. Listening (2.0 points):
Part 1: Question 1-5: Listen to people talking about the things they cannot live without and choose the correct answer (A, B. or C). You will hear the recording two times.
1. The man says that _______
A. He has had his phone for about six years.
B. He uses his phone to organize his social life.
C. He's always calling people when they are lost.
2. The woman says that_______
A. She has had her alarm clock for over a decade.
B. She had to wake her friends up in the morning.
C. She thinks studying a university is fantastic.
3. The man says that ______
A. He has had his guitar for about twelve years.
B. He takes the guitar with him on holidays.
C. His guitar is old but it has really good sound.
4. The woman says that_______
A. One thing she hates is her computer.
B. She uses the Internet quite a lot.
C. She communicate without e-mails.
5. The woman says that________
A. Her dad gave her rings as a birthday present.
B. She has had the ring for around thirteen years.
C. She likes to hold the ring next to the heart.
Part 2: Question 5-10: Listen to people talking about the history of television and choose the correct answer ( F to W) for each question. You will hear the recording two times.
6. When was TV invented?
7. When was the color TV first developed?
8. When did America have its first all color TV channel?
9. When was cable TV first developed?
10. When was plasma TV first made?
F. in 1920 S. in 1964
G. in 1926 T. in 1966
H. in 1940 U. in 1980
M.in 1948 V. in 1986
R. in 1960 W. in 1990


Reading ( 3.0 points):
Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option A, B, C, or D.
How To Improve English Speaking Skills
Many students learn English grammar very well (11)_______ cannot actually have a conversation with native speakers. Here are a few tips for improving English speaking skills.
First of all, it's important to find native speakers to (12)_______ with. Recording is a great way to get the maximum benefit from a conversation with a native speaker. When you listen again, you can notice what you need to improve.
Another way is to watch movies or TV in English, with subtitles if you need them, and watch the same programs over and over. (13)_______ people find that they understand more each time. Listening to music in English and singing (14)_______ can also help you a lot.
Reading out loud is a great way to practice speaking when there are no conversation partners available. Practicing alone is also a low-pressure way to practice, since (15)_______ will hear your mistakes.
11.
A.
when
B.
but
C.
or
D.
so
12.
A.
practice
B.
practical
C.
practically
D.
practicality
13.
A.
Most the
B.
The most
C.
Most
D.
Almost
14.
A.
after
B.
along
C.
behind
D.
beside
15.
A.
anybody
B.
somebody
C.
everybody
D.
nobody
Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option A, B, C, or D.
The start of every New Year is when we all make plans to change our life for the better over the forthcoming twelve months. Psychiatry professor Jayashri Kulkarni says: "January 1 is a 'magical' date and a vow made on this day is much more powerful than one made on August 26, for example." So, we all make a list of things to quit, start or change. Unfortunately, most of these promises are, more often than not, broken by January 31st. They are usually the identical resolutions that were not fulfilled from the previous year, and the years prior to that.
Research shows 45 per cent of us make a New Year's resolution. The most common vows include losing weight, volunteering to help others, quitting smoking, saving money, and getting fit. Others include eating healthier food, drinking less alcohol, and going on a trip. However, research also shows that most of us are not so good at sticking to these. A study from the University of Scranton reveals that 71 per cent of us stick to our annual promises for the first two weeks; six months later, less than 50 percent are still on track to keep their resolutions. Most people who give up on their resolutions do so because of a lack of willpower and the use of the 'escape clause' that they will 'try again next year'.
16. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. People make a list of things to change on New Year's Eve.
B. People have the willpower to change their life for the better.
C. People give up on their resolutions due to the lack of time.
D. People break their New Year's resolutions years after years.
17. What does the word “ resolutions” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. promises B. secrets C. lists D. activities
18. What does the word “ these” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. trips B. researches C. vows D. people
19. What does the word “annual” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. yearly
20. According to paragraph 2 how many of us make a New Year's resolution?
A. only a few of us B. about half of us C. most of us D. all of us
21. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a popular vow?
A. breaking bad habits B. becoming healthier C. keeping a resolution D. travelling abroad

Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option A, B, C, or D.
Sloth was famous for being the laziest animal in the forest. He would eat and sleep all day, curled up comfortably on the tree branches. All the other animals would be busy singing and playing and looking for food and shelter but not Sloth. They told him, "You are a good for nothing." But Sloth just ignored them and carried on lazing around.
One day, a bird built her nest near Sloth's branch. She laid her eggs and watched over them until they hatched. Then, she had to fly off and look for food. She asked Sloth to keep an eye on her babies. Sloth was too lazy to even answer."You are good for nothing," said the bird angrily and flew off.
Soon, a snake slithered up the tree looking for baby birds to eat. It did not notice Sloth on the branch. It was just about to strike the baby birds when it felt a sharp pain on its side ! Sloth had clawed him ! The snake fell to the ground and slithered away. The mother bird saw what Sloth did. She felt so ashamed of herself. "Sorry," she said to Sloth. Sloth simply went back to sleep.

22. What does the word “ignored” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. paid no attention to B. looked forward to
C. paid compliments D. looked up and down at
23. What did the mother bird want Sloth to do while she was away?
A. to keep his eyes open B. to watch her babies
C.to slither up the tree D. to look for food
24. What does the word “she” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the snake B. the baby bird C. sloth D. the mother bird
25. What does the mother bird probably think at the end of the story?
A. “Sloth is really the lazies animal I have known.”
B. “Without the snake, my babies would not have died.”
C. “Sloth is not a good for nothing as many animals think.”
D. “I'll never leave my children in the hands of Sloth again.”

II. Communication and Phonetics ( 1.0 points)
Choose the questions and statements ( F to Z ) to complete the conversation between Ms Chef and a shopkeeper. What did Ms Chef say? You only need five questions and statements for the blanks.
F. Is it? Then that's what I will have.
G. No, I think two types of vegetables are enough.
L. Thank you. Now, let me have a look at the vegetables.
M. That's the fair price. Can I pay by credit card?
O. That's right.
S.Well, we have some important guests for dinner tonight.
W. Yes please, and also some mushrooms.
Z. Yes, they do. What do you have?

Shopkeeper: Good morning Ms Chef
Ms Chef: Good morning.
Shopkeeper: What can I do for you today?
Ms Chef: (26)_________
Shopkeeper: So you want something special?
Ms Chef: (27)_________
Shopkeeper: Do your guests like fish?
Ms Chef: (28)_________
Shopkeeper: I have a salmon. It's very fresh and tasty.
Ms Chef: (29)_________
Shopkeeper: Here are you then.
Ms Chef: (30)_________

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three words in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
31.
A.
imagined
B.
considered
C.
modernized
D.
developed
32.
A.
subjects
B.
designs
C.
standards
D.
labels
33.
A.
treasure
B.
feature
C.
leather
D.
weather

Choose the word which differs from the other three words in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
34.
A.
terrific
B.
effective
C.
marvelous
D.
impressive
35.
A.
persuade
B.
install
C.
occur
D.
capture

III. Vocabulary and Grammar (1.5 points): Choose the best option A, B, C or D.
36. Tornadoes mostly happen during strong thunderstorms and cause a lot of damage to anything they touch. The SYNONYM of “mostly” is:
A.
never
B.
seldom
C.
usually
D.
always
37. Komodo dragon are huge reptiles that can grow to three meters long and weight 160 kilos. The ANTONYM of "huge” is:
A.
little
B.
violent
C.
impressive
D.
complicated
38. Thank you very much for you present. The chocolate tastes so________
A.
lovely
B.
greatly
C.
sweetly
D.
deliciously
39. Everybody was here yesterday, ________?
A.
wasn't anybody
B.
wasn't nobody
C.
weren't they
D.
weren't he and she

40. Children need a lot of ________ from their parents.
A.
encourage
B.
encouragement
C.
courageous
D.
discourage
41. Of the two children, Helen and Alice, Helen is the ________.
A.
funny
B.
funnier
C.
funniest
D.
most funny
42. Hawaii, ________ consists of eight principal islands, is a favorite vacation spot.
A.
where
B.
which
C.
that
D.
it
43. I wish she ________me with the housework but she is so busy with her homework.
A.
can help
B.
can't help
C.
could help
D.
couldn't help

44. My friends practiced very hard; ________, they won the championship.
A.
since
B.
although
C.
however
D.
therefore
45. The Japanese school year normally begins ________ April and ends the following March.
A.
in
B.
on
C.
between
D.
from
46. You cannot make people ________ if they don't want to.
A.
stay
B.
staying
C.
to stay
D.
to staying
47. Professor Luke, to whom he apologized ________ not paying attention in class, is my teacher.
A.
to
B.
for
C.
about
D.
with
48. The key ________ a football match is lots of practice and confidence.
A.
winning
B.
to be won
C.
to winning
D.
to being won
49. Different ways ________ many kinds of cheeses and the cheese is then pressed into different shapes.
A. are used to producing B. used to be produced
C. are used to produce D. used to produce
50. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts of the following sentence.
I asked my pen pals if they could speak other foreign languages beside English.
A B C D
V. Writing:
• Thí sinh KHÔNG chép lại đề vào phiếu trả lời.
• This sinh KHÔNG ghi thông tin cá nhân vào bài viết.
Part 1: Sentence transformation (0.5 point):
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the words in brackets. Do not changing the words given.
You must use FIVE WORDS INCLUDING THE WORD GIVEN.
Only write the five words on your answer sheet. Long answer will NOT be marked.
Example 1: Chicago is a big city, but Los Angeles is bigger. (not)
=>Chicago ______________Los Angeles.
Answer 1 : is not as big as
Example 2: It's a pity Hoa doesn't have a flower garden. (had)
=> Hoa wishes that_________.
Answer 2 : she had a flower garden.
51. James asked, “Will you work tomorrow, Lily?” (following)
=>James wanted to know if____________________________________day.
52. He couldn't drink tea. It was too hot. (to)
=>The tea was too______________________________________________.
53. People speak English around the world. (over)
=>English__________________________________________________world
54. Keep the environment clean or we won't enjoy a healthy life. (pollute)
=> We won't enjoy a healthy life__________________________
55. I don't know how to get to the station. (way)
=> I wish I ______________________________________________________station.
Part 2: Paragraph writing ( 2 points)What is the most useful device that had been invented in the last 100 years? Write a paragraph ( 80 -120 words ) about this device and give three reasons why you think it is the most useful device.










SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THÌ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: Nghe (10 phút) + Đọc Viết (60 phút)

Hội đồng thi: Phòng thi:
Số báo danh: Họ và tên học sinh:
Họ tên và chữ ký Thầy/Cô Giám thị 1:
THÍ SINH GHI CÂU TRẢ LỜI CỦA MÌNH TRÊN PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI
(Thí sinh ghi các chữ cái A, B, C, D... vào phiếu trả lời từ câu 1 đến câu 50.)
I. Listening (2.0 points):
Part 1: Questions 1-5: Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversations two times.

1. The man thought the fashion show was...
A. boring
B. interesting
C. exciting
2. The woman bought...
A. a skirt
B. a skirt
C. some shoes
3. The floor is...
A. dirty
B. dry
C. wet
4. The man finishes work at...
A. 7.00 pm
B. 8.00 pm
C. 9.00 pm
5. The most beautiful city he's been to is...
A. Venice
B. Prague
C. Amsterdam
(Source: New English File Pre-Intermediate, Oxford University Press)

Part 2: Questions 6-10: Listen to an interviewer and a travel consultant talking about the cost of a short holiday in major cities. Write the cost (A-H) next to each city (6-10). You will hear the conversation two times. Number 0 has been done for you as an example.

Cities
0H. London
6. New York
7. Paris
8. Milan
9. Budapest
10. Lisbon
Cost
A $340
B. $400
C. $410
D. $460

E. $470
F. $510
G. $550
H. $670
(Source: International Express Elementary, Oxford University Press)
II. Reading (3.0 points):
Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option A, B, C, or D.
The History of Bags and Purses
Bags and purses came in a variety of designs for a number of purposes. The introduction of pockets towards the end of the 16th century meant that the men's bags slowly disappeared. From then on, bags belonged almost only to (11)_______.
(12) _______the 20th century, more and more women went out to work and became more mobile. This resulted in all sorts of bags for (13) _______purposes such as leather document cases for going to the office, practical leather and plastic daytime bags for walking and visiting, elegant, sparkling bags for evening use.
Branding became more and more important during the 20th century. Famous designers
include Hermès, Louis Vuitton, Gucci and Prada. For (14) _______ designers such as Chanel, Dior, Yves Saint Laurent, Versace, Donna Karan and Dolce & Gabbana, the handbag has become an important accessory. In contrast with the past centuries, the (15) _______has now developed into a fashion accessory and it changes with every season.
(Adapted from https://tassenmuseum.nl/en/knowledge-centre/history-of-bags-and-purses)
11. A. children B. men C. women D. animals
12. A. In B. At C. Between D. Under
13. A. differ B. different C. differently D. difference
14. A. fashion B. architect C. industry D. transportation
15. A suitcase B. pocket C. luggage D. handbag




Read the passage below carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D.
The La Tomatina is a festival held on a Wednesday towards the end of August in the town of Buñol in the Valencia region in Spain. The weeklong festival includes music, parades, dancing, and fireworks.
About 30,000 people come to the tomato fight, while Buñol population is only 9,000. There are not many accommodations for people who come to La Tomatina, so many participants stay in Valencia and travel by bus or train to Buñol, about 38 km outside the city.
Many trucks transport tomatoes into the center of tile town, Plaza del Pueblo. The tomatoes come from Extremadura, where they are less expensive. The signal for the beginning of the fight is firing of the cannon, and the chaos begins. Once it begins, the battle is generally every man for himself. People who partake in this event are strongly encouraged to wear protective safety goggles and gloves. In addition, they must squash the tomatoes before throwing for safety precautions. Another rule is that no one is allowed to bring into this fight anything that may lead to a more serious fight, such as a glass bottle. People must also stay away from trucks and must not tear someone else's clothing. Somewhere between an hour and two hours, the fighting ends and the cannon is fired once more to signal the end. At this point no more tomatoes can be thrown. The cleaning process involves the use of fire trucks to spray down the streets, with water provided from a Roman waterway. People find water to wash themselves, most likely at the Buñol River.
(Adapted from http://www.latomatina.org)
16. According to paragraph 1, when is La Tomatina held this year?
A. Wednesday 27/6/2018 B. Wednesday 25/7/2018
C. Wednesday 29/8/2018 D. Wednesday 26/9/2018
17. According to paragraph 2, why do people stay in Valencia?
A. Because they can take a bus or main to Spain
B. Because there are not enough hotels in Buñol
C. Because there is a weeklong festival in Spain
D. Because they want to live 38 km from Buñol
18. What does the word "transport" in the third paragraph mean?
A. save B. grow C. consume D. carry
19. What does the word "they" in the third paragraph refer to?
A. trucks B. tomatoes C. chaos D. people
20. According to paragraph 3, what are NOT used in the tomato fight?
A. Bottles B. Gloves C. Goggles D. Tomatoes
21. What happens right after the firing of the second cannon?
A. People begin squashing tomatoes B. People start fighting against each other
C. People stop throwing tomatoes D. People finish cleaning the streets

Read the passage below carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D.
On average, more than 100,000 wildfires, also called wildland fires or forest fires, destroy two million hectares of land in the U.S. every year. A wildfire moves at speeds of about 20 kilometers an hour and can last for weeks, consuming everything - trees, brush, homes, and humans - in its path.
There are three conditions for a wildfire to bum: fuel, oxygen, and a heat source. Fuel includes trees, grasses, bushes, and even homes. Oxygen is necessary for a fire to bum. Heat sources help start the wildfire. Although most wildfires are started by people, natural factors like lightning, hot winds, and even tile sun can all provide enough heat to start a wildfire.
Firefighters fight wildfires by removing the conditions for a wildfire to bum. Traditional methods include using water and fire retardants to put out th...